So this has some mandolin discussion in it but I'm curious why the sound/tone difference between two mandolins about $1200 apart is better than two violins in the same range.
As a graduation present, my wife and I will be giving my daughter $2,000 to buy a new violin. She's had her student model we bought her when she started in 6th grade. It was about $600 for the whole set up.
Daughter has been bringing home voilins from a local music store to demostrate and compare in the $2,000 range. She's A/B'd each against each other and than to her own student model. While there is some improvement in the sound between the new higher price violin vs the student modestly priced violin, its not by much.
Now contrast this to my mandoln experince in A/Bing different models. Last summer while in California, I stopped off at Buffalo Bros and played their wall of mandolins. My daughter and I both played to each other to compare. I have to say that a basic Collins MT for about $2,000 was excellent sounding and was head and shoulders above an Eastman in tone and sound. (Im using Eastman because its close to the quality and price of a good student pac-rim violin).
Yet, I'm not hearing this same large difference between the various violins my daughter has brought home in the same $1,200 difference against her student model. The sound/tone difference is small.
Are violins that much different than mandolins in the tone department? Do you have to go to a higher price to get a better separation and superior tone?
Las Vegas, NV
"Every day brings a chance for you to draw in a breath, kick off your shoes and play your mandolin."